Matt 26:63-66 Was Jesus Guilty? 3/25/2001




#1. Caiaphas Prophesied (John 11:47-53)








#2. Jesus on Trial (Matt 26:59-68)








#3. He Was Made Sin For Us (II Cor 5:21, John 17:2,9, I John 2:1-2, I Tim 5-6)








Please open your Bibles to The Epistle to the Galatians, chapter 4.

Perhaps you have already noticed that we are approaching the season of Easter.

The Sermons of the past two Sundays may have made you aware that we are in that season of the year.


Today I want to talk to you about the trial of Jesus, and the question: "Was Jesus Guilty?"

Did you know that God guided this whole event? Here in Gal 4 we find two very familiar verses, which you have heard frequently during the Christmas Season.

But they are actually not pointing to Christmas, but to the Cross. We read in Gal 4:4-5,


Galatians 4:4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

Galatians 4:5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.


When the fullness of time came, God sent forth His Son. Historically, indeed these words may apply to the Christmas Season. But the sentence does not stop there. Literally the Greek text says:


"But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, having become of woman, having become under Law, that He might redeem those under Law, that we might receive the adoption of sons."

In other words, Christ was fully Divine (God sent forth His Son) and He was fully human (having become of woman), deliberately placing Himself under the Law, in order that He might redeem (exagorazo) those that were under the Law.


The focus of this passage is redemption.

To qualify as our Redeemer, Christ had to be fully God and fully man, and because He was fully man He had to place Himself under the Law, so that He could redeem the children of God who were also under the Law.

Christ did not redeem everyone that was under the Law, because then He would have to redeem everyone in the whole world.


The word redeem is the Greek word "exagorazo". Let me run this by you once more. The "agora" is the marketplace. "Agorazo" means to buy from the market, or simply to buy. "Exagorazo" means to buy out, especially the payment of a price to buy out a slave from the slave market, with a view to his freedom.

Christ came to redeem us out of the prison of Sin and Satan, and Christ came:


In other words, in God's timing this was the perfect time.

God had made everything ready in the world for Christ to be our Redeemer by going to the cross, and God had made the world ready to receive the Good News of salvation and to begin to spread the Gospel through the entire world.

The Romans invented the cruel execution of criminals by crucifying them on a wooden cross, and God caused the Roman Empire to occupy the nation of Israel, so that God could carry out His plan.


Man thinks that we are in control, but God states in the Bible that He is in control.

Take the example of:

#1. Caiaphas Prophesied (John 11:47-53)


Please turn with me to the Gospel according to John, chapter 11. We have already seen in this chapter that the Lord Jesus raised Lazarus from the grave, and that this is a picture of our salvation.

But the result was that the priests and Pharisees became filled with envy that Jesus could do all those miracles. Then we read in John 11:47-53,


John 11:47 Then gathered the chief priests and the Pharisees a council, and said, What do we? for this man doeth many miracles.

John 11:48 If we let him thus alone, all men will believe on him: and the Romans shall come and take away both our place and nation.

John 11:49 And one of them, named Caiaphas, being the high priest that same year, said unto them, Ye know nothing at all,

John 11:50 Nor consider that it is expedient for us, that one man should die for the people, and that the whole nation perish not.

John 11:51 And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;

John 11:52 And not for that nation only, but that also he should gather together in one the children of God that were scattered abroad.

John 11:53 Then from that day forth they took counsel together for to put him to death.


What a wonderful bunch of priests. They decided that they would kill Jesus, so that they would not lose their jobs. They showed by their actions that they were a bunch of hypocrites.

They showed by their actions that they were not priests of God, but that they were servants of Satan.

But remember, that God waited till the fullness of time had come. God waited until this particularly wicked bunch of priests and Pharisees became the religious rulers in the nation of Israel. Now the right time had come


But did you know that something very similar is happening in the business world today, almost every day. I am not referring to lower rank employees, but I am speaking of middle and upper management who are elbowing their way to the top by eliminating their colleagues' jobs through lies and gossip.

They do not care that they are ruthlessly uprooting families, and ruining many lives.

What else would you expect from unsaved people?


We all come into the world spiritually dead in trespasses and sins, rebels against God, and because of our sins we were by nature children of wrath.


But you would not expect that from a bunch of priests of the most high God.

But God disclosed here that even among priests we can expect unsaved individuals. And Caiaphas prophesied that:


That was a murderous plot, but that was what Caiaphas said in John 11:50,

It is expedient for us, that one man should die for the people(2X) and that the whole nation perish not.


Which people did Caiaphas have in mind?

Caiaphas meant that Jesus had to die for the nation of the Jews.

These were the people that he had in mind.

This idea comes through clearly if we compare in verse 48: "both our place and nation",

and in verse 50: "that the whole nation perish not",

and in verse 51: "Jesus should die for the nation" (lit.),

and in verse 52: "And not for the nation only" (lit.).


Caiaphas was part of that nation of the Jews. Caiaphas meant that Jesus had to die also for him, to save his job.

Caiaphas was speaking as a servant of Satan, ready to commit murder, to keep his job.

But which people or which nation did God have in mind?

Let me first ask: "How many plans of salvation does God have?"

Does God have one plan of salvation for the Jews and another plan of salvation for the Gentiles? Of course not! You know the answer that the Bible gives.


Jesus said: "No man cometh unto the Father but by Me".

There is only one plan of salvation available to all mankind.

Therefore, the nation that is spoken of in this passage must be the same group of people whom God calls: "the children of God" in verse 52.

Now, that is an important clue.

This means that the nation whom God is talking about is the nation of the Children of God.


How does God call that nation? God calls it the nation of the Jews. But this is a different nation of the Jews than Caiaphas has in mind. Let me try to make this more clear in your mind from the following two examples.


What was the title of Jesus that was nailed to the cross above His head? It was written in Hebrew, and Greek and Latin: "Jesus of Nazareth, the King of the Jews".

Pilate wrote this, under the inspiration of God the Holy Spirit, and it is recorded in all four of the narrative Gospels.

Now, if Jesus is the King of the Jews, does that leave me out? Is He not my King also? Did He not purchase me?


Another example: When the Angel of the Lord spoke to Joseph and said: "Thou shalt call His name Jesus, for He shall save His people from their sins", who is meant by His people?

Are His people only the blood descendants of Jacob, or are we His people?

Can you sense from these two examples that God is redefining the nation of people who are called "His People", or who are called "The Jews"?


Please turn with me to the Epistle to the Romans, chapt. 2. There in Rom 2:25,28 and 29 God gave us a precise definition of those who in God's eyes are "His People", or "The Jews".


Romans 2:25 For circumcision verily profiteth, if thou keep the law: but if thou be a breaker of the law, thy circumcision is made uncircumcision.

Romans 2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:

Romans 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.


According to this definition, Jesus is King of the Jews, and if I am saved I am one of those Jews. Jesus saved His people from their sins, and if I am saved I am one of His people.

And the blood descendants of Jacob, who are still stubborn in their unbelief, and do not believe Jesus as God the Son, are not God's people in His eyes, because their physical circumcision is made uncircumcision.


Please turn with me to the Epistle to the Ephesians, chapter 2.

For whom did Jesus die?

For dirty rotten sinners just like I.

When God addressed the Saints at Ephesus, God said to them in Eph 2:1,3


Ephesians 2:1 And you (hath he quickened), who were dead in trespasses and sins. Now verse 3

Eph 2:3 Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others.


This is how our birth certificate reads.

This is how we all came into this world. We were by nature children under the wrath of God, even as others who never become saved.

We were by nature rebels against God.

When God looked down the corridors of time He only saw rebels against God.

It would take an act of God to change us from rebels to servants of God.


But now read verses 4 and 5,

Ephesians 2:4 But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us,

Ephesians 2:5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;) (2X) (Grace! But grace is a FREE GIFT.)

Where did this love come from?

Is it possible for God to love us and at the same time have us under the wrath of God? Yes! That is indeed true. ^

But why did God have this desire to make us alive together with Christ? That is explained in chapter 1 of Ephesians. Let's turn to chapter 1:3-5,


Ephesians 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

Ephesians 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:

Ephesians 1:5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,


It was not because of anything that we have done or would do that He chose us, but He chose us "according to the good pleasure of his will".

Because of the wickedness of people after Adam's sin, no one would turn to God.

Therefore, if God wanted to save a people for Himself, then He had to predestinate them unto salvation, or else it would never happen.


God decided to choose a certain group of people from the human race, His elect, and God passed by all others.

God decided to bestow His love on His elect, who were basically sinners under the wrath of God for their sins.


Galatians 4:4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

Gal 4:5 To redeem them that were under the law, that WE (!) might receive the adoption of sons.


Christ was sent into the world to redeem those whom God elected unto salvation, because they needed to be turned from Sinners into Saints.

Very briefly, this is how God does that:

First God imputed all the sins of His elect on the Lord Jesus Christ,

and secondly Christ paid the penalty for those sins on the cross of Calvary as their Substitute and thereby satisfied all the requirements for the forgiveness of the sins of His elect,

and thirdly God the Holy Spirit gives the elect a new soul sometime in their earthly life and makes them hear the Gospel so that they become Born Again.


Caiaphas prophesied that Jesus must die for the nation of the Jews, and God defined exactly who the people are in that nation of the Jews for whom Christ died. They are those who have been B. A.


Please turn with me to the Gospel according to Matthew, chapter 26.

So they captured Jesus and brought Him to trial and they tried to find ways to condemn Him to death. Let's look now to:

#2. Jesus on Trial (Matt 26:59-68)


Satan desired to have Jesus killed. The priests and Pharisees were willing instruments in the hands of Satan.

But in the meanwhile, you should keep in mind that it all fit in God's plan.

In order for Jesus to be our Savior, He had to be crucified and endure the wrath of God for our sins.

Matt 26:59,

Matthew 26:59 Now the chief priests, and elders, and all the council, sought false witness against Jesus, to put him to death;

Matthew 26:60 But found none: yea, though many false witnesses came, yet found they none. At the last came two false witnesses,

Matthew 26:61 And said, This fellow said, I am able to destroy the temple of God, and to build it in three days.

Matthew 26:62 And the high priest arose, and said unto him, Answerest thou nothing? What is it which these witness against thee?

Matthew 26:63 But Jesus held his peace. And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God.


Now the high priest was putting Jesus under oath, forcing Him to answer.


Matthew 26:64 Jesus saith unto him: "Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven."

Matthew 26:65 Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? Behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy.

Matthew 26:66 What think ye? They answered and said, He is guilty of death.

Matthew 26:67 Then did they spit in his face, and buffeted him; and others smote him with the palms of their hands,

Matthew 26:68 Saying, Prophesy unto us, thou Christ, Who is he that smote thee?

How did Jesus get suckered into answering the high priest this way?

In the past Jesus always handsomely outwitted the scribes and Pharisees.

Why did He fall in this trap? Or did He fall in a trap?

Again we have to realize that God set this up.

Jesus was not out of control.


In fact, those intelligent members of the ruling council found it impossible to come up with accusations that hold any water.

Verse 60 says: "They found none".

Jesus had to help them to find an accusation. The high priest said

How did Jesus help them? Please turn a few pages to your left, to Matt 22:41. There we read:


Matthew 22:41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,

Matthew 22:42-43 Saying, What think ye of Christ? Whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David. He saith unto them: "How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,

Matthew 22:44-45 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?"

Matthew 22:46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any (man) (anyone) from that day forth ask him any more (questions).


This was the last skirmish Jesus had with the scribes and Pharisees.

But before He left them, He gave them this weapon in their hand whereby they could condemn Him. This is what Jesus asked them:


Who do you think Messiah is? Whose Son is He?

The Pharisees answered: "He is the son of David".

They were the scholars of the Scriptures, but their knowledge of Messiah did not reach any further than that.

Now Jesus is teaching them from the Scriptures something they had never seen.


Jesus said: If Messiah is the son of David, then why would David call him Lord? And then Jesus quoted from a Psalm of David, Psalm 110:1, "Jehovah said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?"

If David addresses Messiah as Lord, and Messiah is sitting next to Jehovah, so Messiah is of Divine origin, then how can Messiah be David's son?


The Pharisees could not answer His question.

Jesus clearly showed them from the Scriptures that Messiah must be of Divine origin, and also must be a descendant of David.

The Pharisees knew that Jesus was a descendant of David, and that Jesus claimed to be the Messiah, and that He has the works to back Him up.


But the Pharisees refused to believe that Jesus was the Messiah, because they were looking for a worldly Messiah who would drive the Romans into the sea.

They believed that Jesus was possessed by the Devil.

But now they had the instrument to accuse Jesus, because Jesus told them that He claimed to be of Divine origin.

Therefore the high priest said in Matt 26:63,


Matthew 26:63 And the high priest said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ (which means: the Messiah), the Son of God.


Then Jesus answered Him: "Thou hast said", which means: "You are right. I am the Christ, the Son of God".

Now the high priest could accuse Jesus of uttering blasphemy, for claiming that He was the Son of God.

To show their contempt of Him, they spit in His face.

But God recorded this in the Bible to show that Jesus had come under the wrath of God.

For someone to be spit in his face was an O.T. sign that he had come under the wrath of God.


Was Jesus guilty? He gave the high priest an honest answer. He did not lie.

But Jesus purposely said these things, so that He would be condemned and brought to the cross. Jesus said in John 10:


John 10:11 I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep. And verse 17

John 10:17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.

John 10:18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself.


Was Jesus guilty of murder? He carried the sins of David, who murdered Uriah the Hittite.

Was Jesus guilty of lying? He carried the sins of Rahab the Harlot, who lied concerning the two spies.

Jesus carried the sins of all the O.T. Saints and all the N.T. Saints. Jesus carried my sins, and that is a whole lot,

and He carried the sins of everyone whom He came to save.

He stood before the throne of God guilty, guilty, guilty.

Even though He did not commit any sins, He bore the guilt of many, many, many sins,

and Jesus knew that He had to be condemned to die the second death for all those sins.


All the rulers in the council were on trial. They were facing the test: "Who do you think Jesus is?" And they failed the test miserably.

They could not believe that Jesus was the Son of God.

They believed that Satan indwelt Jesus.

On the Last Day they will have to give account to God for that sin, as well as for every other sin that they have committed in their lifetime.


1) Who else is on trial? We are on trial! These days the critical question is not: "Is Jesus the Son of God?" Today there are many cults who will gladly admit that Jesus is the Son of God.

But they will not acknowledge that Jesus is God.

They have their own version of the Bible, or by picking and choosing from the Word of God they have devised their own version of what salvation is.


2) We are on trial. Who do we think Jesus is? Do we believe that He is God? The Bible says in:

Hebrews 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God (2X), is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.


3) We are on trial. Do we believe everything that the Bible says? The Bible says in Rev 19:13,

Revelation 19:13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.


To believe in the name of Jesus actually means that we believe the whole Word of God; the whole Bible, nothing more and nothing less. We may not pick and choose, but we must believe and interpret the whole Bible so that it is one harmonious Gospel without any contradictions.

In fact, it is not the KJV that we must believe. The KJV came into existence only 400 years ago. We must believe every word and letter in the original Hebrew O.T. and Greek N.T.

But since we do not know Hebrew or Greek, the KJV is an acceptable alternative, except in those cases where the KJV translators made significant errors. In those instances the Hebrew or Greek text must be our sole Authority.


4) We are on trial. Are we willing to submit to Jesus, the Word of God. This is the only Jesus we are to acknowledge as our only Authority.

Any other gospel where they bring in additional messages from God, or where they eliminate certain portions from the Bible, has by definition another Jesus, but it is not the Jesus from the Bible. God says so in Rev 22:18-19.


5) We are on trial. Are we made willing to believe the Bible only through God's irresistible grace, or do we believe that we have made that decision by our own volition?

Has Jesus done everything He could, and now it is up to us to make the final decision?

Do we want to believe that in spite of what the Bible says?

If we know what the Bible says, but we are not willing to believe all that the Bible says, then in effect we are taking away from the Word of God, and God's wrath is upon us.


It is true, Jesus was on trial, but He was on trial only for those who are the elect of God.

#3. He Was Made Sin For Us (II Cor 5:21). We read in II Cor 5:21 these words:


2 Corinthians 5:21 For he hath made him (to be) sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.


What do these words mean?

It means that He took my place!

In the fullness of time God sent forth His Son to redeem an unrighteous sinner like me.


He took my sins and He took my place and He was found guilty and endured the full penalty for my sins, which was the equivalent of an eternity in Hell,

and He gave me the privilege to represent me so intimately that it was as if I had already endured the equivalent of an eternity in Hell for my sins, so that God would never send me to Hell again.


What an incredible mercy and grace.

Christ who was undefiled, who committed no sin in thought, or in deed, was willing to defile Himself with our sins to such an extent that He bore the wrath of God for all those dirty rotten sins, in order "that we might receive the adoption of sons of God".


Why was it necessary that Christ suffer so much?

Because all mankind comes into the world subject to the wrath of God.

Our God is a consuming fire, & Hell is like a lake of fire.

Anyone unsaved is outside the love of God.

This is the hardest piece of information to swallow for anyone unsaved.


We like to hear the nice promises from the Bible, such as: I will be a God to you and your descendants after you.

If you become saved I will give you eternal life, you cannot lose your salvation and you become co-heirs with the Lord Jesus. We love to hear those promises.


But this is the same God who has made commitments concerning the wrath of God against sin. And it is absolutely certain that there will be a Judgment Day, and those who are not saved are going to be sentenced to the lake of fire for evermore.

People don't like this God. They prefer to live a life far away from this God of the Bible, as far away as they can, unconcerned about eternity.


But if God loves us, almost always He brings calamities in our life. Then we look to the Lord Jesus in our distress: "O Lord, have mercy on me"!

When Peter was sinking in the stormy sea: "Help Lord"!

Will Jesus be our Helper?

He alone is able. There is no other Mediator.


We read in John 17:2,

John 17:2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. (Christ is able to have mercy on us and to help us.)

All of us who cry out to Him for mercy are those who already have been given to Him, and Christ is praying for those who have been given to Him.

We read in John 17:9,

John 17:9, I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.

Here is a clear statement that Christ did not atone for the sins of everyone in the world.


But here we also see Christ, who is God, praying to God. This is a Divine mystery.

We cannot understand it, but God repeats this again in I John 2:1,

1 John 2:1 My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:


Both in John 17:9 and in 1 John 2:1 we see Christ is praying for us.

Why does God emphasize this that Christ is praying for us?

And why does God indicate that He is our advocate (our parakletos) with the Father?

Is this God's way of telling us that Christ is our only Mediator before God?


Is God telling us that Christ became sin for us, so that He is our only hope?

There is no one else who became sin for us, to be our Substitute.

In order for Christ to be our advocate with the Father a great deal needs to be accomplished.

Who is going to pay for our sins?

We read in the next verse:


1 John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for (the sins of) the whole world. (I am deliberately skipping the italics here.)

Christ is the covering for our sins.

Christ is meeting the demands of the Law for our sins.

Christ has done all that is necessary in order that God can have mercy on us.

There is One God, One Mediator:


1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one Mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

The man Christ Jesus is our only Mediator between God and men. He is the only one who can take away our sin problem, so that we become righteous in God's sight. He did that in the next verse:


1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

He gave Himself as a ransom (or payment) for all those whom the Father had given Him.

This is what He had to do in order for us to be reconciled to God.

This was the only way God would stop the fires of Hell.

It was God's action to quench the fire, but before God could do that, there had to be a Mediator who would satisfy the righteousness of God.

When we cry to the Lord Jesus: "O Lord, have mercy on me, a sinner",

in essence we cry to the Lord Jesus: Lord, will you be my Mediator.

Lord, will you be my advocate?

Lord, is it possible that you will take my sins upon you and that you will stand in my place?

Lord, is it possible that you will give your life a ransom for me, and that you will endure Hell in my place?

Lord, I do not deserve any of this at all, and yet, this is the nature of salvation.

This is the nature of God having mercy on me.


We read about God's wrath on the people in the days of Noah.

We read about God's wrath on the cities of Sodom, and Gomorrah, and Admah, and Zeboiim.

We read in the Bible that God's wrath is expressed as a consuming fire.


And yet, what does the average person do?

They rather not talk about the wrath of God.

Even in the Church they say: "Let's not talk about this".

They pretend it does not exist.

They rather talk about the love of God, and nothing else than the love of God.


But where does the Gospel start?

It starts with all of us being under the wrath of God, because we fall short of the righteousness of God.

If we would not be under the wrath of God, then Christ would not have to come, and Christ would not have to suffer on the cross. But then we would not have any Gospel message, or any salvation message.


The message of salvation is that we are saved from the wrath of God, and this salvation by Christ is totally free of charge.

If it were not for God's intervention in my life, I would not be a follower of Christ, and I would not believe all that stuff in the Bible.

When we die without salvation, there is nothing left but the lake of fire.


But praise God that He had mercy on me and gave me a new soul. That is mercy and that is grace beyond measure.